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    Why the harmonic series diverges

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    • AestusyA 离线
      Aestusy
      最后由 Aestusy 编辑

      One of the first beautiful surprises in analysis is that the harmonic series diverges, even though its terms go to zero.

      The series is

      $$
      1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{5} + \cdots
      $$

      At first it feels like it should converge, because the terms (1/n) become smaller and smaller. But the condition (a_n \to 0) is necessary for convergence, not sufficient.

      The classic grouping argument is very neat:

      $$
      1 + \frac{1}{2}

      • \left(\frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4}\right)
      • \left(\frac{1}{5} + \cdots + \frac{1}{8}\right)
      • \left(\frac{1}{9} + \cdots + \frac{1}{16}\right)
      • \cdots
        $$

      Now look at each group.

      For the group

      $$
      \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4},
      $$

      both terms are at least (1/4), so

      $$
      \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} \geq \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{4} = \frac{1}{2}.
      $$

      For the next group,

      $$
      \frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{7} + \frac{1}{8},
      $$

      all four terms are at least (1/8), so

      $$
      \frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{7} + \frac{1}{8}
      \geq 4 \cdot \frac{1}{8}
      = \frac{1}{2}.
      $$

      In general, the group

      $$
      \frac{1}{2^k+1} + \frac{1}{2^k+2} + \cdots + \frac{1}{2^{k+1}}
      $$

      contains (2^k) terms, and each term is at least (1/2^{k+1}). Therefore the whole group is at least

      $$
      2^k \cdot \frac{1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{1}{2}.
      $$

      So the harmonic series is bounded below by

      $$
      1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} + \cdots
      $$

      which clearly diverges.

      Therefore,

      $$
      \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} = \infty.
      $$

      The moral is: terms going to zero is not enough. The terms must go to zero fast enough.

      One of the first beautiful surprises in analysis is that the harmonic series diverges, even though its terms go to zero.

      The series is

      $$
      1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{5} + \cdots
      $$

      At first it feels like it should converge, because the terms (1/n) become smaller and smaller. But the condition (a_n \to 0) is necessary for convergence, not sufficient.

      The classic grouping argument is very neat:

      $$
      1 + \frac{1}{2}

      • \left(\frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4}\right)
      • \left(\frac{1}{5} + \cdots + \frac{1}{8}\right)
      • \left(\frac{1}{9} + \cdots + \frac{1}{16}\right)
      • \cdots
        $$

      Now look at each group.

      For the group

      $$
      \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4},
      $$

      both terms are at least (1/4), so

      $$
      \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} \geq \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{4} = \frac{1}{2}.
      $$

      For the next group,

      $$
      \frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{7} + \frac{1}{8},
      $$

      all four terms are at least (1/8), so

      $$
      \frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{7} + \frac{1}{8}
      \geq 4 \cdot \frac{1}{8}
      = \frac{1}{2}.
      $$

      In general, the group

      $$
      \frac{1}{2^k+1} + \frac{1}{2^k+2} + \cdots + \frac{1}{2^{k+1}}
      $$

      contains (2^k) terms, and each term is at least (1/2^{k+1}). Therefore the whole group is at least

      $$
      2^k \cdot \frac{1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{1}{2}.
      $$

      So the harmonic series is bounded below by

      $$
      1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} + \cdots
      $$

      which clearly diverges.

      Therefore,

      $$
      \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} = \infty.
      $$

      The moral is: terms going to zero is not enough. The terms must go to zero fast enough.

      AestusyA 1 条回复 最后回复 回复 引用
      • AestusyA 离线
        Aestusy @Aestusy
        最后由 Aestusy 编辑

        Inline double escaped: \(x^2+1\)

        Block dollars:

        $$
        \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}
        $$

        AestusyA 1 条回复 最后回复 回复 引用
        • AestusyA 离线
          Aestusy @Aestusy
          最后由 编辑

          $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$

          AestusyA 1 条回复 最后回复 回复 引用
          • AestusyA 离线
            Aestusy @Aestusy
            最后由 编辑

            $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$

            1 条回复 最后回复 回复 引用

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